Return to Resources to help us rethink the current crisis (in perception)

Sources for the questions:

WhatDoTheyKnow: [Documents held showing SARS–COV2 has been isolated and Causes COVID–19]

Fluoride Free Peel: [FOIs reveal that health/science institutions around the world have no record of SARS–COV–2 isolation/purification, anywhere, ever]

The following electronic communication was sent on Monday, 8 February 2021


Has the Tennessee Department of Health properly isolated the SARS–COV–2 virus directly from a sample taken from a diseased patient where the patient sample was not first combined with any other source of genetic material (i.e. monkey kidney cells aka vero cells, liver cancer cells, etc.)?

Please note that I am using “isolation” in the everyday sense of the word: the act of separating a thing(s) from everything else. I am not referring to the “isolation of SAR–COV–2” as it relates to:

  1. the culturing of something,
  2. the performance of an amplification test (i.e. a [RT–]PCR test), or
  3. the sequencing of something.

I am asking if the Tennessee Department of Health has properly isolated the SARS–COV–2 virus which was also present in “patient zero” in Wuhan, China?

If so, then how was this confirmation achieved? Does the Tennessee Department of Health have a sample of the isolated SARS–COV–2 virus from “patient zero” in Wuhan, China? If not, then what was used for this confirmation?

Essentially, I am trying to determine if Postulate 2 of Robert Koch's Postulates has been satisfied. Below I am enclosing his 4 postulates:

  1. The germ must be found in all cases of the disease.
  2. The germ must be isolated from the host and grown in pure culture.
  3. The purified germ must cause the disease again in another host.
  4. The germ must then be isolated from the newly infected host.

I want to thank you in advance.

Irucka Embry

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